Back in the day when the WR for the 100 (yards) was 9.3...and it had been 9.3 for so long (Mel Patton the first?) I never thought anyone would ever break 9 flat. But Bolt undoubtedly did today enroute to his 9.58...I 'm guessing his time at 100 yards was 8.87. Which means Gay was also just under 9.00. What is the appropriate conversion?
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What was Bolt at 100 yards?
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The simplest (over)estimate would be simply to multiply the time by 0.9144, which gives 8.76 (and 8.88 for Gay). So, say 8.8s for Bolt and 8.9s for Gay. It would be more accurate to know the split breakdown and use the last 20m as a gauge for the end velocity.
Eldrick?
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Using a probably-accurate conversion of 1.0856 for yards-to-meters, 9.58
would be about 8.82/.83 en route. The 'official' 10m splits will help pin down
a 100y estimate. But as has been said, those 10m splits are questionable, unless there are 100% accurate, coordinated cameras at each 10m, which
there aren't.
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Originally posted by JRMThe simplest (over)estimate would be simply to multiply the time by 0.9144, which gives 8.76 (and 8.88 for Gay). So, say 8.8s for Bolt and 8.9s for Gay. It would be more accurate to know the split breakdown and use the last 20m as a gauge for the end velocity.
Eldrick?
we don't have his splits so we have to make them up
assuming he ran the race "perfectly", his splits woud be ~ 100m = (2* 60) - 3.00
meaning his 60m split was 6.29 & last 40m was 3.29s
assuming last 40m was 0.01s/10m interval slower, means he went
0.8075 , 0.8175 , 0.8275 , 0.8375
take the cut-off at 100y = (( 100 - 91.44 )/10) * 0.8375 = 0.7169s
-> 9.58 - 0.7169 =
8.863s
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Splits semi and final 100m Berlin
http://www.sportsscientists.com/
According to this site the IAAF published the splits of the final and semi final
(http://1.bp.blogspot.com/_ua8ycqfc4ok/S ... /Table.gif)
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