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Why is Ethiopian NR for steeple only 8:11.32?

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  • #31
    [quote=malmo]
    Originally posted by "ranunculus"

    If "training for the steeplechase is no different than training for any other distance event", would it not follow that the talent for the two is also not significantly different? I would presume that ideal training methods differ from individual to individual and if the talent is different, so should be the training methods. Is this a faulty assumption? If so, why?[/quote

    You would fail in logic class
    So why don't you englighten us? It is a simple question - we are no trying to wind you up. Yet all you do is patronise and insult us.

    Do you only take questions from specific users? Seriously, what's the problem?

    Comment


    • #32
      Originally posted by ranunculus
      Originally posted by 2 cents
      Surely this is not difficult to understand...
      No it is not. I am also not an idiot. I asked malmo a question and instead of answering it, he blew me off. When I objected, he said WTF.

      .
      You need to take a chill pill, buddy.

      Comment


      • #33
        Originally posted by 2 cents
        So the training might be substantially similar for the steeple and 5000, and yet athletes are often better at one or the other. Surely this is not difficult to understand...
        One would think.

        Comment


        • #34
          Originally posted by 2 cents
          If you read the above sentence, before the comma, Marlow chooses to insult Malmo (implying that there is only one subject which Malmo might have something interesting to contribute regarding), and following the comma, he chooses to chastize Malmo for this behavior which he engages in himself without ostensibly any recognition of the palpable hypocrisy which this evidences.
          I seem to recall you doing the exact same thing you're accusing Marlow of doing on another thread. Are you sure you're in a position to accuse him of being a hypocrite?

          Comment


          • #35
            Originally posted by malmo
            Originally posted by ranunculus
            Originally posted by 2 cents
            Surely this is not difficult to understand...
            No it is not. I am also not an idiot. I asked malmo a question and instead of answering it, he blew me off. When I objected, he said WTF.

            .
            You need to take a chill pill, buddy.
            Chill pill won't be necessary. All I need to do is to stay clear of you.

            Guess what? I am feeling better already.

            Comment


            • #36
              Originally posted by 2 cents
              Originally posted by ranunculus
              If "training for the steeplechase is no different than training for any other distance event", would it not follow that the talent for the two is also not significantly different? I would presume that ideal training methods differ from individual to individual and if the talent is different, so should be the training methods. Is this a faulty assumption? If so, why?
              When malmo wrote that the training was the same for the steeplechase as for the other track distance races, I believe he was saying it is essentially the same, with some specific steeple training as a supplement, but certainly not the meat of the training.
              To answer your question, Haile Gebrselassie was the best distance runner in the world on the track for a lengthy period of time, and yet he was never the best cross country runner in the world. So you could have similar training for the track distance races and cross country (and by similar I mean substantially similar) and still be better at one or the other.
              You could take 6 runners who can all do 13:00 for 5000, and as an example, if you tell them they are going to be steeplechasers, my guess is a couple will turn out to be pretty good at it, a couple might be OK just because they are such good runners, and a couple might realize that it is obviously the wrong event for them. So the training might be substantially similar for the steeple and 5000, and yet athletes are often better at one or the other. Surely this is not difficult to understand...
              I had already responded that your explanation is not that difficult to understand. Now that I responded to malmo, I re-read it a couple of times again and still don't see, where I failed the logic course as malmo so aptly described by academic capabilies.
              I have no problem understanding, how the same athlete might not require different training for different events. It still does not follow that two different athletes, one for a greater propensity for 5/10, the other one more suitable for St/CC would not require modifications in their training program. Malmo might have trained the same way for marathon/St, but not everybody is malmo (thank heavens).

              Comment


              • #37
                Originally posted by ranunculus
                I have no problem understanding, how the same athlete might not require different training for different events. It still does not follow that two different athletes, one for a greater propensity for 5/10, the other one more suitable for St/CC would not require modifications in their training program. Malmo might have trained the same way for marathon/St, but not everybody is malmo (thank heavens).
                Classic straw man fallacy.

                Comment


                • #38
                  Originally posted by malmo
                  Originally posted by ranunculus
                  I have no problem understanding, how the same athlete might not require different training for different events. It still does not follow that two different athletes, one for a greater propensity for 5/10, the other one more suitable for St/CC would not require modifications in their training program. Malmo might have trained the same way for marathon/St, but not everybody is malmo (thank heavens).
                  Classic straw man fallacy.
                  First I failed the logic course, now it is a straw man fallacy. Would you care to quit sound bite riddles and explain in simple terms (so the limited minds, such as mine, understand), where is my logic failing?

                  Comment


                  • #39
                    Originally posted by ranunculus
                    Originally posted by malmo
                    Originally posted by ranunculus
                    I have no problem understanding, how the same athlete might not require different training for different events. It still does not follow that two different athletes, one for a greater propensity for 5/10, the other one more suitable for St/CC would not require modifications in their training program. Malmo might have trained the same way for marathon/St, but not everybody is malmo (thank heavens).
                    Classic straw man fallacy.
                    First I failed the logic course, now it is a straw man fallacy. Would you care to quit sound bite riddles and explain in simple terms (so the limited minds, such as mine, understand), where is my logic failing?
                    Read the posts by 26mi235 and 2 cents. They explained the obvious to you. Take some notes and learn something.

                    Comment


                    • #40
                      Originally posted by 26mi235
                      That said, it seems to me that the dropoff as distances get shorter is more 'rapid' among Ethiopian distance runners than among Kenyans. Now, this might be due to there being more Kenyan distance runners or other differences. However, malmo has pointed out to me that most Kenyan distances runners come from a single tribe.
                      The interesting thing here is that while most of Kenya trace their ancestry to West Africa via the Bantu Expansions, the Kalenjin (the 10% of the population that produces about 95% of Kenyan distance talent) trace their ancestry to ...... guess where?

                      Comment


                      • #41
                        Originally posted by malmo
                        Originally posted by ranunculus
                        Originally posted by malmo
                        Originally posted by ranunculus
                        I have no problem understanding, how the same athlete might not require different training for different events. It still does not follow that two different athletes, one for a greater propensity for 5/10, the other one more suitable for St/CC would not require modifications in their training program. Malmo might have trained the same way for marathon/St, but not everybody is malmo (thank heavens).
                        Classic straw man fallacy.
                        First I failed the logic course, now it is a straw man fallacy. Would you care to quit sound bite riddles and explain in simple terms (so the limited minds, such as mine, understand), where is my logic failing?
                        Read the posts by 26mi235 and 2 cents. They explained the obvious to you. Take some notes and learn something.
                        So, now it is obvious. Three is a charm. Good bye, malmo, it's been nice knowing you. I've been truly enlightened and humbled by your greatness.

                        Comment


                        • #42
                          Originally posted by malmo
                          The interesting thing here is that while most of Kenya trace their ancestry to West Africa via the Bantu Expansions, the Kalenjin (the 10% of the population that produces about 95% of Kenyan distance talent) trace their ancestry to ...... guess where?
                          My first quess was gonna be Cleveland but im goin with Ethiopia?
                          phsstt!

                          Comment


                          • #43
                            i read this, pretty funny-

                            some believe that certain East African tribes (e.g. the Nandi tribe in Kenya) have been genetically selected for endurance performance through cultural practices such as cattle raiding
                            phsstt!

                            Comment


                            • #44
                              Originally posted by jazzcyclist
                              Originally posted by 2 cents
                              If you read the above sentence, before the comma, Marlow chooses to insult Malmo (implying that there is only one subject which Malmo might have something interesting to contribute regarding), and following the comma, he chooses to chastize Malmo for this behavior which he engages in himself without ostensibly any recognition of the palpable hypocrisy which this evidences.
                              I seem to recall you doing the exact same thing you're accusing Marlow of doing on another thread. Are you sure you're in a position to accuse him of being a hypocrite?
                              Yes, you're playing the victim after you called another board member an "asshole." Get over yourself. You'd be better served staying out of threads where you have nothing to contribute instead of attempting to hijack them.

                              Comment


                              • #45
                                Originally posted by ranunculus
                                I've been truly enlightened and humbled by your greatness.
                                Don't tell me. Tell it to the bad girls.

                                Comment

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